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Sunday, November 4, 2012

Did Jesus change the laws regarding adultery?

How should adulterers be punished? According to Leviticus 20:10, they should be executed. However, according to John 8:3-8, they should not be punished. And let us dispense with the rational that Jesus came along later and changed the laws of the OT god. Jesus IS god, eternal and the creator, according to YOUR story. Therefore, he was around when the OT laws were created. In fact, he had to have created them.
The verse says that the woman was caught in the act of adultery. If she was caught having sex, then the people who caught her would have known who the other party is. What Jesus said was let him that is without sin cast the first stone. According to this book of fables, there is no one who is without sin except for ,of course, Jesus. it would be impossible for one of them to cast the first stone since there are no people who are without sin. Jesus also knows that all people are sinners. He is therefore, not permitting anyone to punish her which is the opposite of what Leviticus 20:10 requires to occur.
Now, keep in mind two other points. First, Jesus is supposedly god and therefore all knowing. He is the judge of mankind. He could therefore punish the woman since he would know of her guilt and since as god does not need anyone else to testify against her. Second, Jesus is without sin, and therefore COULD cast that first stone.
All the verses show is that Jesus made a change in how adulterers should be handled. But that contradicts what Jesus said regarding the law. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill" (Matthew 5:17)


  1. Please note that the law required both to be punished and that they brought only the woman.

    Secondly, Jesus had another option which he obviously took. He went to the cross and took the death penalty for everyone's sins, including her deserved death penalty, and he also thereby obeyed the two greatest
    laws: love for God and love for your neighbor.

    1. Where does the law say that if only one of two was available to be brought to court that meant the one also got off with no penalty? And besides, Jesus is supposedly to punish all the sinners at some point. He certainly could have said to punish the woman if she was guilty. If she was not guilty, then he should have said so. But that is not what he said. He said go and sin no more. Meaning that she had sinned. Supposedly god cannot abide sin. And Jesus is god, right? Yet, here he is abiding sin. What a joke.